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2-calculate-k-1-n-1-sin-kpi-n-n-gt-2-1-use-Rieman-sum-to-prove-that-0-pi-log-sinx-dx-pilog2-

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Question Number 142424 by Mathspace last updated on 31/May/21
2)calculate Σ_(k=1) ^(n−1) sin(((kπ)/n)) (n>2) 1) use Rieman sum to prove that ∫_0 ^π log(sinx)dx=−πlog2
2)calculate∑k=1n−1sin(kπn)(n>2)1)useRiemansumtoprovethat∫0πlog(sinx)dx=−πlog2

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