Menu Close

5-integers-are-selected-randomly-from-Z-what-is-the-probability-that-at-least-one-of-them-is-divisible-by-5-




Question Number 3927 by prakash jain last updated on 24/Dec/15
5 integers are selected randomly from Z^+   what is the probability that at least one  of them is divisible by 5.
5integersareselectedrandomlyfromZ+whatistheprobabilitythatatleastoneofthemisdivisibleby5.
Commented by prakash jain last updated on 26/Dec/15
(1/5) is the probability of one integer being  divisible by 5.  Probablity of at least one integer being  divisible by 5=1−all not divisible by 5.  =1−((4/5))^5
15istheprobabilityofoneintegerbeingdivisibleby5.Probablityofatleastoneintegerbeingdivisibleby5=1allnotdivisibleby5.=1(45)5
Commented by Filup last updated on 26/Dec/15
yes that is what i meant
yesthatiswhatimeant
Commented by Filup last updated on 26/Dec/15
 Every 1 in 5 sequencial values are  devisibly by 5.  e.g. 7, 8, 9, 10, 11    n, x∈Z^+   S={5, 10,15, ...}  P(x∈S)=(1/5)    This could be horribly wrong    i have assumed 0∉Z^+
Every1in5sequencialvaluesaredevisiblyby5.e.g.7,8,9,10,11n,xZ+S={5,10,15,}P(xS)=15Thiscouldbehorriblywrongihaveassumed0Z+
Commented by Rasheed Soomro last updated on 26/Dec/15
If  one integer were to be slected then?
Ifoneintegerweretobeslectedthen?
Commented by Rasheed Soomro last updated on 26/Dec/15
I think (1/5) in case you select one integer  out of integers! Of course itegers are infinite  but the number of types wrt divisibility by 5  is finite  Integers(mod 5) with remainder 0  Integers(mod 5) with remainder 1  Integers(mod 5) with remainder 2  Integers(mod 5) with remainder 3  Integers(mod 5) with remainder 4
Ithink15incaseyouselectoneintegeroutofintegers!Ofcourseitegersareinfinitebutthenumberoftypeswrtdivisibilityby5isfiniteIntegers(mod5)withremainder0Integers(mod5)withremainder1Integers(mod5)withremainder2Integers(mod5)withremainder3Integers(mod5)withremainder4
Commented by Filup last updated on 26/Dec/15
Yes. Only if integer.  It is out of Z^+     If it were out of R^+  (or R),  the probabilty would be (1/∞)=0%.  Because there are infinitly less integers  than non-integers
Yes.Onlyifinteger.ItisoutofZ+IfitwereoutofR+(orR),theprobabiltywouldbe1=0%.Becausethereareinfinitlylessintegersthannonintegers

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *