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Question Number 2857 by Syaka last updated on 29/Nov/15
By Induction Prove that :    12∣(n^4  − n^2 )
ByInductionProvethat:12(n4n2)
Commented by Filup last updated on 29/Nov/15
What does ∣ mean?
Whatdoesmean?
Commented by prakash jain last updated on 29/Nov/15
n^4 −n^2  is divisible by 12.
n4n2isdivisibleby12.
Commented by Syaka last updated on 29/Nov/15
yes, Sir
yes,Sir
Answered by prakash jain last updated on 29/Nov/15
f(n)=n^2 (n+1)(n−1)=(n−1)n(n+1)n  Statement 1.  g(n)=(n−1)n is divisible by 2.   ...(A)  g(1)=0,  g(2)=2  Let us say 2∣g(n) for some n so n(n−1)=2k  g(n+1)=(n+1)n=n^2 +n=n^2 −n+2n=2(k+n)  So the statement (A) is true ∀n.  It follows that h(n)=n(n+1)   is divisible by 2.      f(n)=g(n)h(n) is divisible by 4.      ...(B)  Statement 2:  y(n)=(n−1)n(n+1) is divisible by 3.  ...(C)  y(1)=0  Let us y(n) is divisible by 3 for some n.  y(n)=(n−1)n(n+1)=3j  y(n+1)=n(n+1)(n+2)=n(n+1)(n−1+3)                  =n(n+1)(n−1)+3n(n+1)=3j+3n(n+1)                  =3(j+n^2 +n)  Hence y(n) is divisible by 3 for all n.  From statement (B) and (C)  f(n)=(n−1)n(n+1)n is divisible 4×3=12  since 3 and 4 don′t have a common factor.
f(n)=n2(n+1)(n1)=(n1)n(n+1)nStatement1.g(n)=(n1)nisdivisibleby2.(A)g(1)=0,g(2)=2Letussay2g(n)forsomenson(n1)=2kg(n+1)=(n+1)n=n2+n=n2n+2n=2(k+n)Sothestatement(A)istruen.Itfollowsthath(n)=n(n+1)isdivisibleby2.f(n)=g(n)h(n)isdivisibleby4.(B)Statement2:y(n)=(n1)n(n+1)isdivisibleby3.(C)y(1)=0Letusy(n)isdivisibleby3forsomen.y(n)=(n1)n(n+1)=3jy(n+1)=n(n+1)(n+2)=n(n+1)(n1+3)=n(n+1)(n1)+3n(n+1)=3j+3n(n+1)=3(j+n2+n)Hencey(n)isdivisibleby3foralln.Fromstatement(B)and(C)f(n)=(n1)n(n+1)nisdivisible4×3=12since3and4donthaveacommonfactor.
Commented by RasheedAhmad last updated on 29/Nov/15
6th line:n(n−1)=2k  7th line:n^2 −n+2n=2(k+1)?  n^2 −n+2n=2k+2n=2(k+n)
6thline:n(n1)=2k7thline:n2n+2n=2(k+1)?n2n+2n=2k+2n=2(k+n)
Commented by prakash jain last updated on 29/Nov/15
Thanks Rasheed.  I have corrected the mistake.
ThanksRasheed.Ihavecorrectedthemistake.
Commented by Rasheed Soomro last updated on 29/Nov/15
g(n+1)=(n+1)n=n^2 +n=n^2 −n+2n=2(k+n)  So the statement (A) is true ∀n.  How is 2(k+n) of the type (n−1)n  g(n)=(n−1)n  g(n+1)=2(k+n)  On lhs n+1 indicates that you are seeking   result for n+1,but on rhs you reached at 2(k+n)  [instead of (n+1^(−) −1)(n+1)]  Why So the statement (A) is true ∀n.?
g(n+1)=(n+1)n=n2+n=n2n+2n=2(k+n)Sothestatement(A)istruen.Howis2(k+n)ofthetype(n1)ng(n)=(n1)ng(n+1)=2(k+n)Onlhsn+1indicatesthatyouareseekingresultforn+1,butonrhsyoureachedat2(k+n)[insteadof(n+11)(n+1)]WhySothestatement(A)istruen.?
Commented by prakash jain last updated on 29/Nov/15
g(n)=n(n−1)=n^2 −n   g(1)=0 so g(1) is divisible by 2.  assume if g(n) is divisible by 2. g(n)=2k  g(n+1)=(n+1)(n+1−1)=(n+1)n  =n^2 +n=n^2 −n+2n=g(n−1)+2n=2k+2n  =2(k+n)⇒2∣g(n+1)  since 2∣g(1) is true.  if 2∣g(n) ⇒2∣g(n+1)  hence g(n) is divisible by 2 for all n∈N.
g(n)=n(n1)=n2ng(1)=0sog(1)isdivisibleby2.assumeifg(n)isdivisibleby2.g(n)=2kg(n+1)=(n+1)(n+11)=(n+1)n=n2+n=n2n+2n=g(n1)+2n=2k+2n=2(k+n)2g(n+1)since2g(1)istrue.if2g(n)2g(n+1)henceg(n)isdivisibleby2forallnN.
Commented by Rasheed Soomro last updated on 30/Nov/15
Th^a NkS Sir! I understood now.
ThaNkSSir!Iunderstoodnow.
Commented by Rasheed Soomro last updated on 30/Nov/15
EXCELLENT Approach!
EXCELLENTApproach!

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