Question Number 11089 by suci last updated on 11/Mar/17
$${for}\:{each}\:{n}\in\mathbb{N},\:{f}_{{n}} \left({x}\right)={nx}\left(\mathrm{1}−{x}^{\mathrm{2}} \right)^{{n}} \\ $$$${for}\:{each}\:{x},\:\mathrm{0}\leqslant{x}\leqslant\mathrm{1}\:{and}\:{a}_{{n}} =\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} {f}_{{n}} \left({x}\right){dx} \\ $$$${if}\:{s}_{{n}} ={sin}\left(\pi{a}_{{n}} \right),\:{for}\:{each}\:{n}\in\mathbb{N},\:{then} \\ $$$${l}\underset{{n}\rightarrow\sim} {{i}m}\:{s}_{{n}} =….??? \\ $$
Commented by FilupS last updated on 11/Mar/17