Question Number 75951 by turbo msup by abdo last updated on 21/Dec/19
$${give}\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{2}}} \:\:\frac{{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }{\mathrm{1}−{cosx}}{dx}\:\:{at}\:{form}\:{of} \\ $$$${serie}. \\ $$
give-0-pi-2-x-2-1-cosx-dx-at-form-of-serie-