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how-0-1-




Question Number 1740 by tabrez8590@gmail last updated on 11/Sep/15
how  0!=1
how0!=1
Commented by 123456 last updated on 11/Sep/15
1!=1∙0!  so for it work to 1 them 0!=1
1!=10!soforitworkto1them0!=1
Answered by Rasheed Ahmad last updated on 12/Sep/15
Permutation of r elements from  a set of n elements can be proved  equal to :   P(n,r)=n(n−1)(n−2)....(n−r+1).      For r<n this is equivalent to:    P(n,r)=((n!)/((n−r)!))  As said above for r<n the above  two formulae are consistent.  But at r=n the above formulae  give the following two results  respectively:      P(n,n)=n!       P(n,n)=((n!)/((n−n)!))=((n!)/(0!))     To continue consistency at n=r  we are forced to define:      0! = 1  Rasheed Soomro
Permutationofrelementsfromasetofnelementscanbeprovedequalto:P(n,r)=n(n1)(n2).(nr+1).Forr<nthisisequivalentto:P(n,r)=n!(nr)!Assaidaboveforr<ntheabovetwoformulaeareconsistent.Butatr=ntheaboveformulaegivethefollowingtworesultsrespectively:P(n,n)=n!P(n,n)=n!(nn)!=n!0!Tocontinueconsistencyatn=rweareforcedtodefine:0!=1RasheedSoomro

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