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Question Number 3204 by Filup last updated on 07/Dec/15
Π_(i=1) ^n i!=1×(1×2)×...×(1×2×...×n)  =1^n 2^(n−1) 3^(n−2) ...(n−1)^2 n  ∴ Π_(i=1) ^n i!=Π_(i=1) ^n (n−i+1)^i   The above is only for i∈Z    What about:  Π_(i=1) ^n Γ(i+1)        where i∉Z
ni=1i!=1×(1×2)××(1×2××n)=1n2n13n2(n1)2nni=1i!=ni=1(ni+1)iTheaboveisonlyforiZWhatabout:ni=1Γ(i+1)whereiZ
Commented by prakash jain last updated on 07/Dec/15
In the product you are starting with i=1 and  going up to n. Generally it is increment by  1 so i∈Z.
Intheproductyouarestartingwithi=1andgoingupton.Generallyitisincrementby1soiZ.

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