Question Number 8421 by uchechukwu okorie favour last updated on 24/Oct/16
$${if}\:{x}=\frac{{a}\left(\mathrm{1}−{r}^{{n}} \right)}{\mathrm{1}−{r}};\:{make}\:{r}\:{the}\: \\ $$$${subject}\:{of}\:{the}\:{formulae} \\ $$
Commented by FilupSmith last updated on 11/Oct/16
$${x}−{xr}={a}−{ar}^{{n}} \\ $$$${x}−{a}={xr}−{ar}^{{n}} \\ $$$${working} \\ $$