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Question Number 1937 by Rasheed Soomro last updated on 25/Oct/15
•Is   ′⇔′  necessary and suficient for two  inequalities to be equivalent?  •If  a>b :  Are  A>B and A+a > B+b equivalent?
Isnecessaryandsuficientfortwoinequalitiestobeequivalent?Ifa>b:AreA>BandA+a>B+bequivalent?
Answered by 123456 last updated on 25/Oct/15
(a,b,A,B)∈R^4   a>b∧A>B⇒A+a>B+b  −−−−−−−−−−  a>b   A+a>A+b (+A)  B+a>B+b (+B)  A>B  A+a>B+a (+a)  A+b>B+b (+b)  A+a>B+a>B+b  −−−−−  a>b∧A+a>B+b⇏A>B  −−−−−−  A=B=0⇒a>b⇒A+a=a>b=B+b
(a,b,A,B)R4a>bA>BA+a>B+ba>bA+a>A+b(+A)B+a>B+b(+B)A>BA+a>B+a(+a)A+b>B+b(+b)A+a>B+a>B+ba>bA+a>B+bA>BA=B=0a>bA+a=a>b=B+b
Commented by Rasheed Soomro last updated on 25/Oct/15
That means adding same−sense inequality to  given  inequality doesn′t yeild equivalent inequality.    Equivalent inequality may be achieved only  by:  •Adding (Subtracting)an equation_(−)  to(from) both sides of an inequality.  •Multiplying/Dividing  an equation_(−)  to both sides of an inequality.  Am I correct?
Thatmeansaddingsamesenseinequalitytogiveninequalitydoesntyeildequivalentinequality.Equivalentinequalitymaybeachievedonlyby:Adding(Subtracting)anequationto(from)bothsidesofaninequality.Multiplying/Dividinganequationtobothsidesofaninequality.AmIcorrect?
Commented by prakash jain last updated on 25/Oct/15
Multiplying and dividing an equatily by  same value may reverse the sign and equality.
Multiplyinganddividinganequatilybysamevaluemayreversethesignandequality.
Commented by Rasheed Soomro last updated on 28/Oct/15
Of course sir!
Ofcoursesir!

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