is-possible-to-proof-that-f-x-e-cx-obey-f-x-y-f-x-f-y-using-e-x-n-0-x-n-n- Tinku Tara June 3, 2023 Others 0 Comments FacebookTweetPin Question Number 4962 by 123456 last updated on 27/Mar/16 ispossibletoproofthatf(x)=ecxobeyf(x+y)=f(x)f(y)usingex=∑+∞n=0xnn!? Commented by 123456 last updated on 27/Mar/16 ex+y=∑+∞n=0(x+y)nn!=∑+∞n=01n!∑nm=0(nm)xmyn−m=∑+∞n=01n!∑nm=0n!m!(n−m)!xmyn−m=∑+∞n=0∑nm=01m!(n−m)!xmyn−m Commented by prakash jain last updated on 08/Jan/17 ex+y=∑∞i=0(x+y)ii!(x+y)m=∑mi=0mCixiym−icoefficientofxkinex+y∑∞m=k1m!⋅m!k!(m−k)!ym−k=1k!∑∞m=kym−k(m−k)!=1k!∑∞m=0ymm!=eyk!soex+y=∑∞k=0eyk!xk=eyex Terms of Service Privacy Policy Contact: info@tinkutara.com FacebookTweetPin Post navigation Previous Previous post: Question-70497Next Next post: Question-70499 Leave a Reply Cancel replyYour email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *Comment * Name * Save my name, email, and website in this browser for the next time I comment.