Question Number 131291 by mohammad17 last updated on 03/Feb/21
$${is}\:{the}\:{sequence}\:\langle{an}\rangle=\langle\frac{\left(−\mathrm{1}\right)^{{n}} }{\mathrm{2}{n}}\rangle\:{converge} \\ $$$${or}\:{diverge}\:{and}\:{bounded}\:{or}\:{not}\:{bounded}\:? \\ $$
Commented by mohammad17 last updated on 03/Feb/21
$${how}\:{can}\:{solve}\:{this} \\ $$