Question Number 68870 by mathmax by abdo last updated on 16/Sep/19
![let ∣a∣<1 calculate ∫_0 ^1 ln(x)ln(1−ax)ln(1−ax^2 )dx](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/Q68870.png)
$${let}\:\:\mid{a}\mid<\mathrm{1}\:\:\:{calculate}\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} {ln}\left({x}\right){ln}\left(\mathrm{1}−{ax}\right){ln}\left(\mathrm{1}−{ax}^{\mathrm{2}} \right){dx} \\ $$