Question Number 68870 by mathmax by abdo last updated on 16/Sep/19
$${let}\:\:\mid{a}\mid<\mathrm{1}\:\:\:{calculate}\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} {ln}\left({x}\right){ln}\left(\mathrm{1}−{ax}\right){ln}\left(\mathrm{1}−{ax}^{\mathrm{2}} \right){dx} \\ $$