Question Number 69241 by ~ À ® @ 237 ~ last updated on 21/Sep/19
$$\:{Let}\:{consider}\:{K}=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \:\frac{\left(\mathrm{1}−{x}^{{a}} \right)\left(\mathrm{1}−{x}^{{b}} \right)\left(\mathrm{1}−{x}^{{c}} \right)}{\left({x}−\mathrm{1}\right){lnx}}{dx}\: \\ $$$${prove}\:{that}\: \\ $$$${e}^{{K}} =\:\frac{\left({a}+{b}\right)!\left({a}+{c}\right)!\left({b}+{c}\right)!}{{a}!{b}!{c}!\left({a}+{b}+{c}\right)!}\:\: \\ $$