Question Number 65825 by ~ À ® @ 237 ~ last updated on 04/Aug/19
$${let}\:{consider}\:\:{two}\:{real}\:{numbers}\:{p}\:{and}\:{such}\:{as}\:{p}^{\mathrm{2}} −{q}^{\mathrm{2}} ={pq} \\ $$$${Prove}\:{that} \\ $$$$\:\:\:{J}=\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \:\:\:\:\frac{{dv}}{\:^{{q}} \sqrt{\left(\mathrm{1}+\:^{{q}} \sqrt{{v}^{{p}} \:}\:\right)^{{p}} }}=\:\mathrm{1} \\ $$$$ \\ $$