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let-f-x-cosx-1-x-1-prove-that-f-x-1-x-2-x-2-8-x-0-2-ptove-that-f-x-2-pi-e-1-x-1-ln-cosx-x-pi-2-




Question Number 66322 by mathmax by abdo last updated on 12/Aug/19
let f(x)=(cosx)^(1/x)  ( 1)  prove that f(x)∼1−(x/2)+(x^2 /8)  ( x→0)  (2)ptove that f^′ (x)∼−(2/π) e^(((1/x)−1)ln(cosx))   (x→(π/2))
letf(x)=(cosx)1x(1)provethatf(x)1x2+x28(x0)(2)ptovethatf(x)2πe(1x1)ln(cosx)(xπ2)

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