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Question Number 136835 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 26/Mar/21
        .....nice     calculus...     for    f(x)=f(x+π) :       ∫_(−∞) ^( ∞) f(x).((sin^2 (x))/x^2 )dx=^(why???) ∫_0 ^( π) f(x)dx
$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:…..{nice}\:\:\:\:\:{calculus}… \\ $$$$\:\:\:{for}\:\:\:\:{f}\left({x}\right)={f}\left({x}+\pi\right)\:: \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\int_{−\infty} ^{\:\infty} {f}\left({x}\right).\frac{{sin}^{\mathrm{2}} \left({x}\right)}{{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }{dx}\overset{{why}???} {=}\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\:\pi} {f}\left({x}\right){dx} \\ $$

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