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Question Number 138163 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 10/Apr/21
              ........nice  ... .... .... calculus.....      prove that::              Ψ=Σ_(n=1) ^∞ ((1/(n^2 π^2 +1)))=^(???) (1/(e^2 −1))          .............
..nice..calculus..provethat::Ψ=n=1(1n2π2+1)=???1e21.
Answered by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 10/Apr/21
Σ_(n=1) ^∞ (1/(n^2 +φ^2 ))=(π/(2∅))coth(π∅)−(1/(2∅^2 ))  ⇒Σ_(n=1) ^∞ (1/(n^2 π^2 +1))=(1/π^2 )Σ_(n=1) ^∞ (1/(n^2 +((1/π))^2 ))=(1/π^2 )((π^2 /2)coth(1)−(π^2 /2))  =(1/2)(((e^2 +1)/(e^2 −1))−1)=(1/(e^2 −1))=((1/e)/(e−(1/e)))
n=11n2+ϕ2=π2coth(π)122n=11n2π2+1=1π2n=11n2+(1π)2=1π2(π22coth(1)π22)=12(e2+1e211)=1e21=1ee1e
Commented by mnjuly1970 last updated on 10/Apr/21
    greateful..mr..payan...
greateful..mr..payan

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