Question Number 2624 by prakash jain last updated on 23/Nov/15

Answered by Filup last updated on 24/Nov/15
![if ⌊a±b⌋=⌊a⌋±⌊b⌋: for (a, b)∈Z lim_(x→0) ⌊1+x]=lim_(x→0) ⌊1⌋+lim_(x→0) ⌊x⌋ =1+lim_(x→0) ⌊x⌋=1+⌊0⌋=1 Similarly lim_(x→0) ⌊1−x⌋=lim_(x→0) ⌊1⌋−lim_(x→0) ⌊x⌋ =1−⌊0⌋=1](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/Q2627.png)
Commented by Yozzi last updated on 24/Nov/15

Commented by Filup last updated on 24/Nov/15

Commented by Filup last updated on 24/Nov/15

Answered by Yozzi last updated on 24/Nov/15
