Question Number 142681 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 03/Jun/21
$$ \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:{prove}\:\:{that}\::: \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\boldsymbol{\phi}:=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\:\infty} \frac{{ln}\left(\mathrm{1}+{cos}\left({x}\right)\right)}{\mathrm{1}+{e}^{\:{x}} }{dx}=\mathrm{0} \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:……………. \\ $$$$ \\ $$
Commented by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 04/Jun/21
$${Seems}\:{to}\:{be}\:\mathrm{0}.\:{But}\:{there}\:{is}\:{little}\:{spike}\:{on}\:{the}\:{positive}\:{half}\: \\ $$
Commented by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 04/Jun/21
