Question Number 141134 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 16/May/21
$$\:\:\:\:\: \\ $$$$\:\:\:{prove}\:{that}:: \\ $$$$\:\:\Phi:=\underset{{m},{n}=\mathrm{1}} {\overset{\infty} {\sum}}\frac{\left(−\mathrm{1}\right)^{{n}−\mathrm{1}} }{{m}^{\mathrm{2}} +{n}^{\mathrm{2}} }=\:\frac{\pi^{\mathrm{2}} }{\mathrm{24}}+\frac{\pi{ln}\left(\mathrm{2}\right)}{\mathrm{8}} \\ $$$$ \\ $$
Answered by mindispower last updated on 17/May/21
$${tried}\:{but}\:{not}\:{solved}\: \\ $$