Prove-that-n-N-k-1-n-1-sin-kpi-2n-k-1-n-1-cos-kpi-2n- Tinku Tara June 3, 2023 Differentiation 0 Comments FacebookTweetPin Question Number 142698 by Willson last updated on 04/Jun/21 Provethat∀n∈N∗∏n−1k=1sin(kπ2n)=∏n−1k=1cos(kπ2n) Answered by Ar Brandon last updated on 04/Jun/21 ∏n−1k=1sin(kπ2n)=∏n−1k=1cos(π2−kπ2n)=∏n−1k=1cos((n−k)π2n)=cos(n−12nπ)cos(n−22nπ)⋅⋅⋅cos(22nπ)cos(12nπ)=cos(12nπ)cos(22nπ)⋅⋅⋅cos(n−22nπ)cos(n−12nπ)=∏n−1k=1cos(k2nπ) Terms of Service Privacy Policy Contact: info@tinkutara.com FacebookTweetPin Post navigation Previous Previous post: 2-2-x-3-cos-x-2-1-2-4-x-2-dx-Next Next post: Question-77164 Leave a Reply Cancel replyYour email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *Comment * Name * Save my name, email, and website in this browser for the next time I comment.