Question Number 66168 by mathmax by abdo last updated on 10/Aug/19
![prove without calculus that ∫_0 ^∞ cos(x^2 )dx=∫_0 ^∞ sin(x^2 )dx](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/Q66168.png)
$${prove}\:{without}\:{calculus}\:{that}\:\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \:{cos}\left({x}^{\mathrm{2}} \right){dx}=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} {sin}\left({x}^{\mathrm{2}} \right){dx} \\ $$