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Question-141750




Question Number 141750 by Algoritm last updated on 23/May/21
Answered by cherokeesay last updated on 23/May/21
((π(2r)^2 )/4) − πr^2  ⇔ ((π4r^2 )/4) − πr^2  = 0  (B_(Area) /R_(Area) ) = 1
$$\frac{\pi\left(\mathrm{2}{r}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} }{\mathrm{4}}\:−\:\pi{r}^{\mathrm{2}} \:\Leftrightarrow\:\frac{\pi\mathrm{4}{r}^{\mathrm{2}} }{\mathrm{4}}\:−\:\pi{r}^{\mathrm{2}} \:=\:\mathrm{0} \\ $$$$\frac{{B}_{{Area}} }{{R}_{{Area}} }\:=\:\mathrm{1} \\ $$

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