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Question-68966




Question Number 68966 by anaplak last updated on 17/Sep/19
Commented by kaivan.ahmadi last updated on 17/Sep/19
lim_(x→(π^+ /2)) (1/(cosx))=(1/0^− )=−∞
$${lim}_{{x}\rightarrow\frac{\pi^{+} }{\mathrm{2}}} \frac{\mathrm{1}}{{cosx}}=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{0}^{−} }=−\infty \\ $$
Commented by anaplak last updated on 17/Sep/19
sir please give me the answer by showing with the help of taking right hand limit
$${sir}\:{please}\:{give}\:{me}\:{the}\:{answer}\:{by}\:{showing}\:{with}\:{the}\:{help}\:{of}\:{taking}\:{right}\:{hand}\:{limit} \\ $$
Commented by kaivan.ahmadi last updated on 17/Sep/19
you can use the diagram of y=cosx and see  when x→(π^+ /2) then cosx→0^−
$${you}\:{can}\:{use}\:{the}\:{diagram}\:{of}\:{y}={cosx}\:{and}\:{see} \\ $$$${when}\:{x}\rightarrow\frac{\pi^{+} }{\mathrm{2}}\:{then}\:{cosx}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}^{−} \:\:\:\:\: \\ $$
Commented by kaivan.ahmadi last updated on 17/Sep/19

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