Question Number 68966 by anaplak last updated on 17/Sep/19
![](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/9370.png)
Commented by kaivan.ahmadi last updated on 17/Sep/19
![lim_(x→(π^+ /2)) (1/(cosx))=(1/0^− )=−∞](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/Q68973.png)
$${lim}_{{x}\rightarrow\frac{\pi^{+} }{\mathrm{2}}} \frac{\mathrm{1}}{{cosx}}=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{0}^{−} }=−\infty \\ $$
Commented by anaplak last updated on 17/Sep/19
![sir please give me the answer by showing with the help of taking right hand limit](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/Q68980.png)
$${sir}\:{please}\:{give}\:{me}\:{the}\:{answer}\:{by}\:{showing}\:{with}\:{the}\:{help}\:{of}\:{taking}\:{right}\:{hand}\:{limit} \\ $$
Commented by kaivan.ahmadi last updated on 17/Sep/19
![you can use the diagram of y=cosx and see when x→(π^+ /2) then cosx→0^−](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/Q68995.png)
$${you}\:{can}\:{use}\:{the}\:{diagram}\:{of}\:{y}={cosx}\:{and}\:{see} \\ $$$${when}\:{x}\rightarrow\frac{\pi^{+} }{\mathrm{2}}\:{then}\:{cosx}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}^{−} \:\:\:\:\: \\ $$
Commented by kaivan.ahmadi last updated on 17/Sep/19
![](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/9378.png)