Menu Close

Question-71091




Question Number 71091 by Henri Boucatchou last updated on 11/Oct/19
Commented by Prithwish sen last updated on 11/Oct/19
It is same as  ∫_0 ^∞ (1/x)tan^(−1) (√(x^2 +x+1)) dx −∫_0 ^∞ (1/x)tan^(−1) (√(9x^2 +3x+1)) dx
$$\boldsymbol{\mathrm{It}}\:\boldsymbol{\mathrm{is}}\:\boldsymbol{\mathrm{same}}\:\boldsymbol{\mathrm{as}} \\ $$$$\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \frac{\mathrm{1}}{\boldsymbol{\mathrm{x}}}\boldsymbol{\mathrm{tan}}^{−\mathrm{1}} \sqrt{\boldsymbol{\mathrm{x}}^{\mathrm{2}} +\boldsymbol{\mathrm{x}}+\mathrm{1}}\:\boldsymbol{\mathrm{dx}}\:−\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \frac{\mathrm{1}}{\boldsymbol{\mathrm{x}}}\boldsymbol{\mathrm{tan}}^{−\mathrm{1}} \sqrt{\mathrm{9}\boldsymbol{\mathrm{x}}^{\mathrm{2}} +\mathrm{3}\boldsymbol{\mathrm{x}}+\mathrm{1}}\:\boldsymbol{\mathrm{dx}} \\ $$
Commented by mind is power last updated on 11/Oct/19
yes nice
$$\mathrm{yes}\:\mathrm{nice}\: \\ $$$$ \\ $$
Commented by Prithwish sen last updated on 11/Oct/19
Thank you Sir.
$$\mathrm{Thank}\:\mathrm{you}\:\mathrm{Sir}. \\ $$

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *