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Question-72724




Question Number 72724 by rajesh4661kumar@gmail.com last updated on 01/Nov/19
Commented by kaivan.ahmadi last updated on 01/Nov/19
(π/2)<x_1 <x_2 <π⇒0<∣cosx_2 ∣<∣cosx_1 ∣<1⇒  log∣cosx_2 ∣<log∣cosx_1 ∣
$$\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{2}}<{x}_{\mathrm{1}} <{x}_{\mathrm{2}} <\pi\Rightarrow\mathrm{0}<\mid{cosx}_{\mathrm{2}} \mid<\mid{cosx}_{\mathrm{1}} \mid<\mathrm{1}\Rightarrow \\ $$$${log}\mid{cosx}_{\mathrm{2}} \mid<{log}\mid{cosx}_{\mathrm{1}} \mid \\ $$$$ \\ $$$$ \\ $$
Commented by Henri Boucatchou last updated on 02/Nov/19
You  would  have  first  correct  the  interval before...
$${You}\:\:{would}\:\:{have}\:\:{first}\:\:{correct}\:\:{the}\:\:{interval}\:{before}… \\ $$

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