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Question-73712




Question Number 73712 by FCB last updated on 15/Nov/19
Answered by MJS last updated on 15/Nov/19
lim_(x→0^− ) (1/x) =−∞  lim_(x→0^+ ) (1/x)=+∞  ⇒ lim_(x→0) (1/x) doesn′t exist
$$\underset{{x}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}^{−} } {\mathrm{lim}}\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{x}}\:=−\infty \\ $$$$\underset{{x}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}^{+} } {\mathrm{lim}}\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{x}}=+\infty \\ $$$$\Rightarrow\:\underset{{x}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}} {\mathrm{lim}}\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{x}}\:\mathrm{doesn}'\mathrm{t}\:\mathrm{exist} \\ $$

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