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Solve-the-following-inequality-sinx-1-cosx-1-where-0-x-lt-2pi-cosx-0-




Question Number 1407 by 112358 last updated on 29/Jul/15
Solve the following inequality                       ((sinx+1)/(cosx))≤1  where 0≤x<2π , cosx≠0
Solvethefollowinginequalitysinx+1cosx1where0x<2π,cosx0
Commented by 123456 last updated on 29/Jul/15
f(x)=((sin x+1)/(cos x))  f(x)≤1⇔f(x)−1≤0  g(x)=f(x)−1=((sin x+1)/(cos x))−1=tan x+sec x−1  g(x)≤0
f(x)=sinx+1cosxf(x)1f(x)10g(x)=f(x)1=sinx+1cosx1=tanx+secx1g(x)0
Commented by 112358 last updated on 30/Jul/15
x∈((π/2),2π)∩x≠((3π)/2) is correct.
x(π2,2π)x3π2iscorrect.
Commented by 123456 last updated on 29/Jul/15
x∈(π/2,2π)\{3π/2}
x(π/2,2π){3π/2}
Commented by 112358 last updated on 30/Jul/15
Good^  deduction!
Gooddeduction!
Commented by Rasheed Ahmad last updated on 31/Jul/15
Sorry I accidently deleted my   comment! There is no way to   recover! I will rewrite it soon.
SorryIaccidentlydeletedmycomment!Thereisnowaytorecover!Iwillrewriteitsoon.
Answered by Rasheed Ahmad last updated on 03/Aug/15
(Rasheed Soomro)  Case−I  Let x is in Q−I  cos x>0 ,sin x>0  ((sin x+1)/(cos x)) ≤1⇒sin x+1 ≤ cos x  ⇒sin x ≤ cos x−1  ⇒1≤ −(((1−cos x)/(sin x)))  ⇒1 ≤ −tan(x/2)....[∵ ((1−cos x)/(sin x))=tan(x/2)]  −1 ≥ tan(x/2)  ⇒tan(x/2)≤ −1           (i)  But tan(x/2)>0    [(x/2) is in Q−I]   (ii)  (i) and (ii) are contradictory.  They can′t be true simultaneously.  Hence in Q−I there is no solution.           x ∉ (0,(π/2))                               ★★★  Case−II  Let x is in Q−II  sin x>0 , cos x<0  sin x+1≥ cos x    sin x ≥ cos x −1  1 ≥−( ((1−cos x)/(sin x)) )  1≥ −tan(x/2)⇒−1≤ tan(x/2)  tan(x/2) ≥ −1..................(i)  Now (x is in Q−II)⇒((x/2) is in Q−I)  So,  tan(x/2) >0...............(ii)  (i) and (ii) have tan(x/2) >0 common for  which both are true at same time.  So x∈((π/2) , π)                             ★★★  Case−III  Let x is in Q−III  sin x < 0 , cos x < 0  Similar way of deduction leads us:  tan(x/2) ≤ −1......(i)  Now    (x is in Q−III)⇒((x/2) is in Q−II)  So tan(x/2)<0 .......(ii)  Here  intersection of (i) and (ii)  is   tan(x/2) ≤ −1  So the solution of given inequality  is ′ solution of tan(x/2) ≤ −1′  tan(x/2) ≤ −1 ⇒ (x/2) ≤ ((3π)/4)  ⇒ x ≤((3π)/2)   But cos((3π)/2) =0  So finaly  x<((3π)/2)  This covers whole Q−III       x∈(π , ((3π)/2))                               ★★★  Case−IV  Let x is in Q−IV  sin x<0 , cos x>0  In similar way as above we deduce:  tan (x/2) ≥ −1..................(i)  Now  (x is in Q−IV)⇒((x/2) is in Q−II)  Hence tan(x/2) < 0...........(ii)  (i) and (ii) may be written as:  −1≤tan (x/2) <0  tan(x/2) ∈[−1,0)       (x/2) ∈[((3π)/4) , π)         x ∈[((3π)/2) , 2π)  That is whole Q−IV including  ((3π)/2) but excuding 2π.  But cos((3π)/2)=0 so it also be excluded.  Hence    x∈(((3π)/2) , 2π)                            ★★★  Case−V  Let x is a quardantal angle  For x=(π/2) or ((3π)/2) cos x=0 which is  against the restriction cos x≠0.  For x=0 or 2π the given inequality  holds but 2π is out of domain.  Hence only 0 out of quardantal  angles is included in solution.  Thus,  Final Answer is :  x ∈{0}∪((π/2) , 2π)−{((3π)/2)}
(RasheedSoomro)CaseILetxisinQIcosx>0,sinx>0sinx+1cosx1sinx+1cosxsinxcosx11(1cosxsinx)1tanx2.[1cosxsinx=tanx2]1tanx2tanx21(i)Buttanx2>0[x2isinQI](ii)(i)and(ii)arecontradictory.Theycantbetruesimultaneously.HenceinQIthereisnosolution.x(0,π2)CaseIILetxisinQIIsinx>0,cosx<0sinx+1cosxsinxcosx11(1cosxsinx)1tanx21tanx2tanx21(i)Now(xisinQII)(x2isinQI)So,tanx2>0(ii)(i)and(ii)havetanx2>0commonforwhichbotharetrueatsametime.Sox(π2,π)CaseIIILetxisinQIIIsinx<0,cosx<0Similarwayofdeductionleadsus:tanx21(i)Now(xisinQIII)(x2isinQII)Sotanx2<0.(ii)Hereintersectionof(i)and(ii)istanx21Sothesolutionofgiveninequalityissolutionoftanx21tanx21x23π4x3π2Butcos3π2=0Sofinalyx<3π2ThiscoverswholeQIIIx(π,3π2)CaseIVLetxisinQIVsinx<0,cosx>0Insimilarwayasabovewededuce:tanx21(i)Now(xisinQIV)(x2isinQII)Hencetanx2<0..(ii)(i)and(ii)maybewrittenas:1tanx2<0tanx2[1,0)x2[3π4,π)x[3π2,2π)ThatiswholeQIVincluding3π2butexcuding2π.Butcos3π2=0soitalsobeexcluded.Hencex(3π2,2π)CaseVLetxisaquardantalangleForx=π2or3π2cosx=0whichisagainsttherestrictioncosx0.Forx=0or2πthegiveninequalityholdsbut2πisoutofdomain.Henceonly0outofquardantalanglesisincludedinsolution.Thus,FinalAnsweris:x{0}(π2,2π){3π2}
Commented by 123456 last updated on 03/Aug/15
f(x)=((sin x+1)/(cos x))  lim_(x→3π/2)  f(x)=0<1  this is a curious fact :)
f(x)=sinx+1cosxlimx3π/2f(x)=0<1thisisacuriousfact:)
Commented by Rasheed Ahmad last updated on 03/Aug/15
And that means f(x) is   discontinuous at x=((3π)/2) .
Andthatmeansf(x)isdiscontinuousatx=3π2.

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