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What-exactly-does-f-C-C-mean-




Question Number 2367 by Filup last updated on 18/Nov/15
What exactly does f:C→C mean?
Whatexactlydoesf:CCmean?
Answered by RasheedAhmad last updated on 18/Nov/15
A function  f  whose domain and  range both are C (set of complex  numbers)
AfunctionfwhosedomainandrangebothareC(setofcomplexnumbers)
Commented by Filup last updated on 18/Nov/15
Oh, I see! What other variations are there?  Could I have some examples?
Oh,Isee!Whatothervariationsarethere?CouldIhavesomeexamples?
Commented by RasheedAhmad last updated on 18/Nov/15
Take an example. If                     g(x)=(1/x)  If x∈N i−e domain of g(x) then  g(x)∈(0,1] i−e the range of g(x)  We can write  g:N→(0,1]  Mr. prakash jain,123456, Mr. Yozzi  and some others can give more  satisfying answer.
Takeanexample.Ifg(x)=1xIfxNiedomainofg(x)theng(x)(0,1]ietherangeofg(x)Wecanwriteg:N(0,1]Mr.prakashjain,123456,Mr.Yozziandsomeotherscangivemoresatisfyinganswer.
Commented by 123456 last updated on 18/Nov/15
g(z)=(1/z)  all complex number except 0 can be pruged  then the domain is C/{0}  the range is all complex except 0, since  1/z→0,z→∞^∼  (complex infinity)  then it can be give by  g:C/{0}→C/{0} simple pole at z=0  if we take  h(z)= { ((g(z)),(z≠0)),(0,(z=0)) :} (removing problem at z=0)  h:C→C  in general you can take  g:A→B where A⊂C/{0} is a subset of  the complex excluding 0 (maximal domain  possible) and B⊂C is a subset that  depends on A
g(z)=1zallcomplexnumberexcept0canbeprugedthenthedomainisC/{0}therangeisallcomplexexcept0,since1/z0,z(complexinfinity)thenitcanbegivebyg:C/{0}C/{0}simplepoleatz=0ifwetakeh(z)={g(z)z00z=0(removingproblematz=0)h:CCingeneralyoucantakeg:ABwhereAC/{0}isasubsetofthecomplexexcluding0(maximaldomainpossible)andBCisasubsetthatdependsonA
Commented by Yozzi last updated on 18/Nov/15
An example could be a function f  which maps members of the set of real  numbers to members of the set of  integers. In this case we could define  this statement by notation as follows:                             f: R→Z  where f(x)=⌊x⌋ , x∈R. ⌊x⌋ is the  greatest integer less than or equal  to x. (E.g ⌊π⌋=3  ∵ π=3.14...∣  ⌊e⌋=2  ∵ e=2.718...∣ ⌊0.1⌋=0 ∣  ⌊−236.653⌋=−237∣ ⌊−10⌋=−10)   f is a many−to−one function since  for all n≤x<n+1 ,where n∈Z,  ⌊x⌋=n . This then shows how the output  of f are integers given that the inputs  are real. The domain of f is R and its  codomain is Z . f is bijective since   (1) every member of the domain is  mapped to only one member of the   codmain. So ∄x∈R such that ⌊x⌋ has  more than one result (vertical line test  proves this)  and  (2) f is surjective since for every   value of numbers in the codomain, ∃x∈R mapped to f(x)∈Z.  So, f generates the entire set of integers,  which is infinitely countable, since  the set of real numbers has a non−finite  cardinality. The range of f is Z.    Let P={prime numbers} and  {Q^� }^+ ={positive irrational numbers}.  If f is a function defined by                 f(x)=(√x)  , x∈P  then f maps the prime numbers to  some members of {Q^� }^+ .  So    f: P→{Q^� }^+ .
Anexamplecouldbeafunctionfwhichmapsmembersofthesetofrealnumberstomembersofthesetofintegers.Inthiscasewecoulddefinethisstatementbynotationasfollows:f:RZwheref(x)=x,xR.xisthegreatestintegerlessthanorequaltox.(E.gπ=3π=3.14e=2e=2.7180.1=0236.653=23710=10)fisamanytoonefunctionsinceforallnx<n+1,wherenZ,x=n.Thisthenshowshowtheoutputoffareintegersgiventhattheinputsarereal.ThedomainoffisRanditscodomainisZ.fisbijectivesince(1)everymemberofthedomainismappedtoonlyonememberofthecodmain.SoxRsuchthatxhasmorethanoneresult(verticallinetestprovesthis)and(2)fissurjectivesinceforeveryvalueofnumbersinthecodomain,xRmappedtof(x)Z.So,fgeneratestheentiresetofintegers,whichisinfinitelycountable,sincethesetofrealnumbershasanonfinitecardinality.TherangeoffisZ.LetP={primenumbers}and{Q¯}+={positiveirrationalnumbers}.Iffisafunctiondefinedbyf(x)=x,xPthenfmapstheprimenumberstosomemembersof{Q¯}+.Sof:P{Q¯}+.
Commented by Filup last updated on 18/Nov/15
Thank you all so much! I understand now!
Thankyouallsomuch!Iunderstandnow!

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