Question Number 11567 by Nayon last updated on 28/Mar/17
$${why}\:\:\:\:\:\:{li}\underset{{x}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}} {{m}}\:\frac{{f}\left({x}\right)}{{g}\left({x}\right)}={li}\underset{{x}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}} {{m}}\frac{{f}'\left({x}\right)}{{g}'\left({x}\right)} \\ $$
Answered by mrW1 last updated on 28/Mar/17
$${l}'{hopital}'{s}\:{rule} \\ $$