Question Number 157219 by amin96 last updated on 21/Oct/21
$$\underset{\mathrm{0}<\boldsymbol{\mathrm{n}}} {\sum}\frac{\left(−\mathrm{1}\right)^{\boldsymbol{\mathrm{n}}−\mathrm{1}} \boldsymbol{\mathrm{n}}}{\boldsymbol{\mathrm{sinh}}\left(\pi\boldsymbol{\mathrm{n}}\right)}=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{4}\pi}\:\:\:\:{prove} \\ $$