Question Number 172889 by Gbenga last updated on 02/Jul/22
$$\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \boldsymbol{\mathrm{tanh}}^{−\mathrm{1}} \left(\boldsymbol{\mathrm{sinh}}\left(\boldsymbol{\mathrm{x}}\right)\right)\boldsymbol{\mathrm{dx}} \\ $$$$\boldsymbol{\mathrm{small}}\:\boldsymbol{\mathrm{laplace}} \\ $$