Question Number 158402 by amin96 last updated on 03/Nov/21
$$\int_{\left(\mathrm{1};\pi\right)} ^{\left(\mathrm{2};\pi\right)} \left(\mathrm{1}−\frac{{y}^{\mathrm{2}} }{{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }{cos}\left(\frac{{y}}{{x}}\right)\right){dx}+\left({sin}\left(\frac{{y}}{{x}}\right)+\frac{{y}}{{x}}{cos}\left(\frac{{y}}{{x}}\right)\right){dy}=? \\ $$