Question Number 32731 by caravan msup abdo. last updated on 31/Mar/18
$$\left.\mathrm{1}\right)\:{prove}\:{that}\:\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \:\frac{{arctant}}{{t}}{dt}=−\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \:\:\frac{{lnt}}{\mathrm{1}+{t}^{\mathrm{2}} }{dt} \\ $$$$\left.\mathrm{2}\right)\:{find}\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \:\frac{{arctant}}{{t}}{dt}\:{at}\:{form}\:{of}\:{serie} \\ $$