Question Number 81595 by zainal tanjung last updated on 14/Feb/20
$$\mathrm{8}+\mathrm{4}+\mathrm{2}+\mathrm{1}+…..\infty= \\ $$
Commented by Tony Lin last updated on 14/Feb/20
$$\mathrm{8}\left(\mathrm{1}+\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}+\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{4}}+\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{8}}+\centerdot\centerdot\centerdot\right) \\ $$$$=\mathrm{8}×\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{1}−\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}} \\ $$$$=\mathrm{16} \\ $$
Commented by Zainal Arifin last updated on 14/Feb/20
$$\mathrm{good}….! \\ $$