Question Number 24945 by Tinkutara last updated on 29/Nov/17

Commented by Tinkutara last updated on 30/Nov/17

Commented by mrW1 last updated on 29/Nov/17

Commented by mrW1 last updated on 29/Nov/17

Commented by mrW1 last updated on 30/Nov/17
![this is the proof: let m_2 =λm_1 before the hit: particle 1: v particle 2: 0 after hit: particle 1: u_1 particle 2: u_2 m_1 v=m_1 u_1 +m_2 u_2 ⇒v=u_1 +λu_2 ...(i) (1/2)m_1 v^2 =(1/2)m_1 u_1 ^2 +(1/2)m_2 u_2 ^2 ⇒v^2 =u_1 ^2 +λu_2 ^2 ...(ii) (i) into (ii) ⇒v^2 =v^2 −2λvu_2 +λ^2 u_2 ^2 +λu_2 ^2 ⇒λu_2 [(λ+1)u_2 −2v]=0 ⇒(λ+1)u_2 =2v ⇒u_2 =(2/(λ+1))×v ⇒u_1 =v−λ×((2v)/(λ+1))=((1−λ)/(λ+1))×v ⇒Δu=u_2 −u_1 =((2−1+λ)/(λ+1))×v=v i.e. after hit the particles depart from each other with the same velocity as they approch to each other before the hit. the time till next collision is hence ((2πr)/v)](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/Q24968.png)