Question Number 151063 by qaz last updated on 18/Aug/21
$$\mathrm{Calculate}\:\:::\:\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \frac{\mathrm{ln}\left(\mathrm{1}+\mathrm{x}\right)}{\left(\pi^{\mathrm{2}} +\mathrm{ln}^{\mathrm{2}} \mathrm{x}\right)\mathrm{x}}\mathrm{dx}=\gamma \\ $$