Question Number 55980 by Hassen_Timol last updated on 07/Mar/19
$${Does}\:{the}\:{function}\:{f}\left({x}\right)\:=\:{x}^{{x}} \:{have} \\ $$$${an}\:{antiderivative}\:? \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\Box\:{yes}\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\Box\:{no} \\ $$$${How}\:{this}\:{may}\:{be}\:{proved}\:? \\ $$
Commented by 121194 last updated on 07/Mar/19
$$\mathrm{it}\:\mathrm{have},\:\mathrm{but}\:\mathrm{i}\:\mathrm{doubt}\:\mathrm{it}\:\mathrm{can}'\mathrm{t}\:\mathrm{be}\:\mathrm{expressed}\:\mathrm{in}\:\mathrm{terms}\:\mathrm{of}\:\mathrm{elementsru}\:\mathrm{fu7ctions} \\ $$