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Question Number 121720 by Jamshidbek2311 last updated on 11/Nov/20
Does this example work that way.  f(x)=x^x    f′(x)=x^x ∙(lnx+1)
Doesthisexampleworkthatway.f(x)=xxf(x)=xx(lnx+1)
Answered by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 11/Nov/20
f(x)=x^x   log(f(x))=xlogx  ((f′(x))/(f(x)))=1+logx  f′(x)=f(x)(1+logx)=x^x (1+logx)
f(x)=xxlog(f(x))=xlogxf(x)f(x)=1+logxf(x)=f(x)(1+logx)=xx(1+logx)
Answered by ebi last updated on 11/Nov/20
  Yes.  f(x)=x^x   let y=x^x   ln y=ln x^x   ln y=x ln x  (d/dx)(ln y)=(d/dx)(x ln x)  (1/y)∙(dy/dx)=x∙(1/x)+ln x  (1/y)∙(dy/dx)=1+ln x  (dy/dx)=y(1+ln x)  ∴f′(x)=x^x (1+ln x)
Yes.f(x)=xxlety=xxlny=lnxxlny=xlnxddx(lny)=ddx(xlnx)1ydydx=x1x+lnx1ydydx=1+lnxdydx=y(1+lnx)f(x)=xx(1+lnx)
Commented by Jamshidbek2311 last updated on 11/Nov/20
thank
thank

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