Question Number 94311 by mathmax by abdo last updated on 18/May/20
$${explicit}\:{f}\left({a}\right)\:=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \:\frac{{ln}\left(\mathrm{1}−{ax}^{\mathrm{2}} \right)}{{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }{dx}\:{with}\:\mathrm{0}<{a}<\mathrm{1} \\ $$