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f-is-a-C-2-function-prove-that-1-L-f-x-L-f-f-0-2-L-f-x-2-L-f-xf-0-f-0-L-means-Laplace-transform-

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Question Number 38457 by maxmathsup by imad last updated on 25/Jun/18
f is a C^2 function prove that 1)L(f^′ )=x L(f)−f(0^+ ) 2)L(f^(′′) )=x^2 L(f) −xf(0^+ )−f^′ (0^+ ) L means Laplace transform.
fisaC2functionprovethat1)L(f′)=xL(f)−f(0+)2)L(f″)=x2L(f)−xf(0+)−f′(0+)LmeansLaplacetransform.

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