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Question Number 156128 by aaaspots last updated on 08/Oct/21
 f:X→Y  f(E\F)=f(E)\f(F)⇒f is 1 to 1    I think it is not true   since let x1 x2 x3∈E ,x3 x4∈F,  and f(x1)=f( x2) it will be not true.    but my friend say by ∼q⇒∼p   f is not 1 to 1  ⇒f(E\F)≠f(E)\f(F),and take  x1 x2∈X, f(x1)=f(x2)=y0  E={x1 ,x2} F={x2}  and  can proof it is true  but I do not know which is true  how to proof it?
f:XYf(EF)=f(E)f(F)fis1to1Ithinkitisnottruesinceletx1x2x3E,x3x4F,andf(x1)=f(x2)itwillbenottrue.butmyfriendsaybyq⇒∼pfisnot1to1f(EF)f(E)f(F),andtakex1x2X,f(x1)=f(x2)=y0E={x1,x2}F={x2}andcanproofitistruebutIdonotknowwhichistruehowtoproofit?
Answered by TheSupreme last updated on 08/Oct/21
  D={y∣ y=f(x) , x∈E}  C={y∣ y=f(x), x∈F}  if ∀x∈E f is ′1 to 1′ (injective) and ∀x∈inF f(x) is injective and  ∀x∈E,y∈F f(x)≠f(y) so  D\C={y∣ y=f(x), x∈E\F}    dim assuming ∄x∈F,y∈E: f(x)=f(y)
D={yy=f(x),xE}C={yy=f(x),xF}ifxEfis1to1(injective)andxinFf(x)isinjectiveandxE,yFf(x)f(y)soDC={yy=f(x),xEF}dimassumingxF,yE:f(x)=f(y)
Commented by aaaspots last updated on 08/Oct/21
I still do not understand.  and can we assume f is 1 to 1   when we proof it at first?
Istilldonotunderstand.andcanweassumefis1to1whenweproofitatfirst?
Commented by aaaspots last updated on 08/Oct/21
well i write f(E\F)=f(E)\f(F)    only if f is 1 to 1
welliwritef(EF)=f(E)f(F)onlyiffis1to1
Commented by TheSupreme last updated on 08/Oct/21
f(x) is 1 to 1 only if the proposition (1) is true for all E,F ∈ D[f(x)]  D is dominium, prop 1 is your question
f(x)is1to1onlyiftheproposition(1)istrueforallE,FD[f(x)]Disdominium,prop1isyourquestion

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