Question Number 97617 by mathmax by abdo last updated on 08/Jun/20
$$\mathrm{give}\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \:\:\frac{\mathrm{arctan}\left(\mathrm{2x}\right)}{\left(\mathrm{1}+\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}} \right)^{\mathrm{2}} }\mathrm{dx}\:\mathrm{at}\:\mathrm{form}\:\mathrm{of}\:\mathrm{serie} \\ $$