Question Number 33703 by math khazana by abdo last updated on 22/Apr/18
$${give}\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \:\:\:\:\:\frac{{x}\:{e}^{−{x}} }{\mathrm{1}\:−{e}^{−\mathrm{2}{x}} }\:{sin}\left(\pi{x}\right){dx}\:\:{at}\:{form}\:{of}\:{serie}. \\ $$