Menu Close

Given-that-u-and-v-are-real-valued-functions-in-x-then-d-dx-u-v-is-equal-to-




Question Number 33411 by Rio Mike last updated on 15/Apr/18
 Given that u and v are real valued  functions in x ,then (d/dx)((u/v)) is equal to?
$$\:\mathrm{Given}\:\mathrm{that}\:{u}\:\mathrm{and}\:{v}\:\mathrm{are}\:\mathrm{real}\:\mathrm{valued} \\ $$$$\mathrm{functions}\:\mathrm{in}\:{x}\:,\mathrm{then}\:\frac{{d}}{{dx}}\left(\frac{{u}}{{v}}\right)\:{is}\:{equal}\:{to}? \\ $$
Commented by Rio Mike last updated on 15/Apr/18
sorry i got it now   bring it together we get    ((v(du/dx)−u(dv/dx))/v^2 )
$${sorry}\:{i}\:{got}\:{it}\:{now} \\ $$$$\:{bring}\:{it}\:{together}\:{we}\:{get} \\ $$$$\:\:\frac{{v}\frac{{du}}{{dx}}−{u}\frac{{dv}}{{dx}}}{{v}^{\mathrm{2}} } \\ $$

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *