how-can-convert-the-interval-of-the-intigral-0-1-f-x-dx-to-the-interval-0-f-x-dx-

Question Number 155524 by aliyn last updated on 01/Oct/21

h o w c a n c o n v e r t t h e i n t e r v a l o f t h e i n t i g r a l

\int_{0}^{1} f (x) d x t o t h e i n t e r v a l \int_{0}^{\infty} f (x) d x ?

Commented by tabata last updated on 01/Oct/21

? ? ? ? ?

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