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Question Number 155524 by aliyn last updated on 01/Oct/21
how can convert the interval of the intigral   ∫_0 ^( 1) f(x) dx to the interval ∫_0 ^( ∞)  f(x) dx ?
$$\boldsymbol{{how}}\:\boldsymbol{{can}}\:\boldsymbol{{convert}}\:\boldsymbol{{the}}\:\boldsymbol{{interval}}\:\boldsymbol{{of}}\:\boldsymbol{{the}}\:\boldsymbol{{intigral}}\: \\ $$$$\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\:\mathrm{1}} \boldsymbol{{f}}\left(\boldsymbol{{x}}\right)\:\boldsymbol{{dx}}\:\boldsymbol{{to}}\:\boldsymbol{{the}}\:\boldsymbol{{interval}}\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\:\infty} \:\boldsymbol{{f}}\left(\boldsymbol{{x}}\right)\:\boldsymbol{{dx}}\:? \\ $$
Commented by tabata last updated on 01/Oct/21
?????
$$????? \\ $$

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