Question Number 50451 by JDlix last updated on 16/Dec/18

Answered by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 16/Dec/18
![(1/(4πε_0 ))((e×e)/r_n ^2 )=((mv^2 )/r_n ) angular momentum=mvr_n =((nh)/(2π)) mv^2 r_n =ke^2 eqn 1 [k=(1/(4πε_0 ))] mvr_n =((nh)/(2π)) eqn 2 deviding eqn 1 by eqn 2 v=((ke^2 )/(nh))×2π v=(1/(4πε_0 ))×(e^2 /(nh))×2π=(e^2 /(2ε_0 h))×(1/n) pls check....](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/Q50457.png)
Commented by peter frank last updated on 16/Dec/18

Answered by peter frank last updated on 16/Dec/18

Commented by JDlix last updated on 17/Dec/18
