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Question Number 155586 by aaaspots last updated on 02/Oct/21
How to proof     f:X→Y  f is 1 to 1 ⇐⇒ f(E)\f(F)=f(E\F)
Howtoprooff:XYfis1to1⇐⇒f(E)f(F)=f(EF)
Answered by mindispower last updated on 04/Oct/21
by Double inclusion  let E,F bee subset oF X  let y∈F(E\F)⇒∃! a∈E\F such f(a)=y  a∈E\F⇒f(a)∈f(E),f(a)∉f(F) since f is injective  ⇒f(a)∈F(E)\F(F)⇒f(E)\f(F)⊆F(E\F)  let z∈f(E\F)⇒∃! b∈E\F ∣ f(b)=z  ⇒f(b)∈f(E),f(b)∉f(F)    because if f(b)∈f(F)  suppose f(b)∈f(F)⇒∃ a∈F f(a)=f(b)⇒a=b by injectivity  a=b,b∈F absurd since b∈E\F  ⇒z∈f(E)\f(F)  ⇒f(E\F)⊆f(E)\f(F)  ⇒f(E\F)=f(E\F)
byDoubleinclusionletE,FbeesubsetoFXletyF(EF)!aEFsuchf(a)=yaEFf(a)f(E),f(a)f(F)sincefisinjectivef(a)F(E)F(F)f(E)f(F)F(EF)letzf(EF)!bEFf(b)=zf(b)f(E),f(b)f(F)becauseiff(b)f(F)supposef(b)f(F)aFf(a)=f(b)a=bbyinjectivitya=b,bFabsurdsincebEFzf(E)f(F)f(EF)f(E)f(F)f(EF)=f(EF)
Commented by aaaspots last updated on 04/Oct/21
   how about 1 to 1⇐  f(E\F)=f(E)\f(F)
howabout1to1f(EF)=f(E)f(F)
Commented by mindispower last updated on 04/Oct/21
not true if we tack F=∅ empty set  by definition f(∅)=∅  ⇒∀ f∈f(X→Y) ∀E∈P(X)  f is 1 to 1
nottrueifwetackF=emptysetbydefinitionf()=ff(XY)EP(X)fis1to1
Commented by aaaspots last updated on 07/Oct/21
after the third lines I still understand
afterthethirdlinesIstillunderstand

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