Question Number 171583 by mr W last updated on 18/Jun/22

Commented by infinityaction last updated on 18/Jun/22
![f(f(f(x))) = f(x)^2 −f(x)+1 f(f(0)) = 1 so f(1) = f(0)^2 −f(0) +1 that is f(0)^2 −f(0)−f(1)+1 = 0 .....1 repeating the process since f(f(1)) = 1 f(1) = f(1)^2 −f(1)+1 [f(1)−1]^2 = 0 f(1) = 1 put this value in eq^n . 1 f(0){f(0)−1} = 0 f(0) =1 or f(0) = 0 f(0)= 1 and f(f(0)) = f(0) f(f(0)) = 0 rejected it is right ????](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/Q171586.png)
Commented by mr W last updated on 18/Jun/22

Commented by infinityaction last updated on 18/Jun/22

Answered by mr W last updated on 18/Jun/22

Commented by infinityaction last updated on 18/Jun/22

Answered by cortano1 last updated on 18/Jun/22
