Question Number 90679 by MWSuSon last updated on 25/Apr/20
$${if}\:{y}={sin}\left({m}\mathrm{sin}^{−\mathrm{1}} {x}\right),\:{prove}\:{that}\:\left(\mathrm{1}−{x}^{\mathrm{2}} \right){y}_{{n}+\mathrm{2}} −\left(\mathrm{2}{n}+\mathrm{1}\right){xy}_{{n}+\mathrm{1}} +\left({m}^{\mathrm{2}} −{n}^{\mathrm{2}} \right){y}_{{n}} =\mathrm{0} \\ $$
Commented by MWSuSon last updated on 25/Apr/20
$${using}\:{Leibnitz}\:{method}\:{please}. \\ $$